Geregistreerd op: 16 Dec 2017
|Geplaatst: 15-01-2018 13:39:23 Onderwerp: inflation expectations as observable
I have been reading the paper of Del Negro and Eusepi (Fitting Observed inflation expectations) and I came out with a question maybe a silly one but I prefer that someone who knows Dynare better can help me. In this paper they say thet they make inflation expectations observables when they make the DSGE estimation (a bayesian one), how is it possible? Is it possible to make pi(+1) observable? or there are other ways to do it? Please if someone could answer this it would be really great?
I didn't find the right solution from the Internet.
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